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  1. Newest Questions - Mathematics Stack Exchange

    2 days ago · Mathematics Stack Exchange is a platform for asking and answering questions on mathematics at all levels.

  2. Graph of a projection function - TeX - LaTeX Stack Exchange

    Dec 22, 2025 · could you say exactly what you want to change? it is hard to know which differences are deliberate and which not. for example, the sketch uses a pattern for some …

  3. TeX - LaTeX Stack Exchange

    Q&A for users of TeX, LaTeX, ConTeXt, and related typesetting systems

  4. notation - What does "∈" mean? - Mathematics Stack Exchange

    Jun 25, 2014 · I have started seeing the "∈" symbol in math. What exactly does it mean? I have tried googling it but google takes the symbol out of the search.

  5. Tour - Mathematics Stack Exchange

    Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's built and run by you as part of the Stack Exchange …

  6. What does $QAQ^ {-1}$ actually mean? - Mathematics Stack …

    Apr 28, 2020 · I'm self-learning Linear Algebra and have been trying to take a geometric approach to understand what matrices mean visually. I've noticed this matrix product pop up repeatedly …

  7. Series expansion: $\\frac{1}{(1-x)^n}$ - Mathematics Stack Exchange

    Jan 24, 2016 · What is the expansion for $(1-x)^{-n}$? Could find only the expansion upto the power of $-3$. Is there some general formula?

  8. Difference between PEMDAS and BODMAS. - Mathematics Stack …

    Dec 21, 2022 · I didn't get the point that when the PEMDAS and the BODMAS rule are different, then how can they both yeild the same results. I have searched over google but found …

  9. Probability that 1 is a double root of a random degree-5 integer ...

    Dec 12, 2025 · Here is Python code to produce an exact answer. # The list of given coefficients that might appear. coeff = [-5, -4, -3, -2, -1, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] # Count is a ...

  10. factorial - Why does 0! = 1? - Mathematics Stack Exchange

    The theorem that $\binom {n} {k} = \frac {n!} {k! (n-k)!}$ already assumes $0!$ is defined to be $1$. Otherwise this would be restricted to $0 <k < n$. A reason that we do define $0!$ to be …